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Post by ty on Apr 12, 2011 18:49:53 GMT -5
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RoadToRiches
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Formerly "indebt"
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Post by RoadToRiches on Apr 12, 2011 19:04:14 GMT -5
Well there are two options:
1. Which is my preferred option - become rich!
or
2. Keep bitching about how rich pay less taxes and do what I been doing for past years - be stupid with my money and be poor.
Edit: Forgot to put my fame suit on...lol
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formerexpat
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Post by formerexpat on Apr 12, 2011 20:58:42 GMT -5
Doesn't your quoted statement show that the rich do pay taxes?
It sounds like the top 400 derive most of their income from capital gains. We should all aspire to move in that direction. We can all take advantage of that portion of the tax code.
Just to compare, the average tax rate for the bottom 50% is less than 3%, so the top 1% is paying nearly 8x the amount of the bottom 50% in terms of percentage.
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skubikky
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Post by skubikky on Apr 13, 2011 7:53:33 GMT -5
Doesn't your quoted statement show that the rich do pay taxes? Just to compare, the average tax rate for the bottom 50% is less than 3%, so the top 1% is paying nearly 8x the amount of the bottom 50% in terms of percentage. Well stated.
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Post by Savoir Faire-Demogague in NJ on Apr 13, 2011 8:01:51 GMT -5
I imagine the reired elderly living on savings and investments(ie: dividends and cap gains), will also be the group that benefits the most from the tax preferrenced treatment of these types of income streams.
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azphx1972
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Post by azphx1972 on Apr 13, 2011 11:23:09 GMT -5
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thyme4change
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Post by thyme4change on Apr 13, 2011 11:25:37 GMT -5
I think we are paying like $25,000 in taxes this year - so I must be poor.
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tskeeter
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Post by tskeeter on Apr 13, 2011 11:56:38 GMT -5
According to the Tax Foundation, for tax year 2008, the IRS reported that the top1% paid 38.2% of all federal income taxes at an average 23.27% tax rate. That doesn't sound like "the rich pay no taxes" to me.
The same report showed that the bottom 50% paid only 2.7% of federal income taxes paid at an average tax rate of 2.59%.
What this story conveniently leaves out is that the tax contribution of the bottom 50% has been dropping steadily since 1984, when they contributed 7.35% of all federal income taxes. This is a 64.8% decrease in the portion of federal income taxes paid by the bottom 50%.
Over the same period, the top 1% have enjoyed a 27.1% increase in the portion of the federal taxes that they pay. In 1984, the top 1% paid 29.92% of all federal income taxes. By 2008, the top 1% were paying 38.02% of all federal income taxes.
Seems to me that the top 1% are paying more and more of the cost of running the country, while the proletariat masses are paying less and less. So who is taking advantage of who?
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Post by lisaa on Apr 13, 2011 12:56:44 GMT -5
I need to go back to college. I can't find an equation that makes 23% equal to 0.
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thyme4change
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Post by thyme4change on Apr 13, 2011 13:50:41 GMT -5
But isn't that the top 1% of tax payers paid 38.2% of taxes? They didn't say that the top 1% of wealth holders paid 38.2%.
I'm assuming they take every 1040/1040EZ in the country and sort them by the "total tax paid" entry and start analyzing. There might be very rich people who figured out a way to be in the middle or even bottom, but how would we know?
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tskeeter
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Post by tskeeter on Apr 13, 2011 16:01:15 GMT -5
Very true, these statistics are based on income, not wealth. Seems as our tax structure was created, the politicians at that time had unusual foresight, and decided not to punish citizens for saving and accumulating resources rather than spending every cent they got their hands on. One should consider, though, that at one time or another, every dollar of wealth passes through the income phase and is taxed.
Now, while I don't have any statistics, I just can't imagine that a person among the wealthiest 1% of the US population would be a low or middle income taxpayer. I'm sure the wealth is not tucked in the mattress. The wealth would generate too much rent, dividends, interest, etc. I expect that the list of the wealthiest 1% of US citizens and the list of the 1% with the highest incomes would be pretty much the same people.
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thyme4change
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Post by thyme4change on Apr 13, 2011 16:03:05 GMT -5
tskeeter - I suspect you are correct with that - I just like to poke holes in everyone's arguments.
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Mad Dawg Wiccan
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Rest in Peace
Only Bites Whiners
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Post by Mad Dawg Wiccan on Apr 13, 2011 17:02:03 GMT -5
<<According to the Tax Foundation, for tax year 2008, the IRS reported that the top1% paid 38.2% of all federal income taxes at an average 23.27% tax rate. That doesn't sound like "the rich pay no taxes" to me.>>
It's just a common quote from the envious class. Has no basis in truth but they love to spread it around.
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phil5185
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Post by phil5185 on Apr 13, 2011 18:42:05 GMT -5
wealthiest 1% of the US population would be a low or middle income taxpayer. I'm sure the wealth is not tucked in the mattress. The wealth would generate too much rent, dividends, interest, etc. Not always - If you put your wealth in an unmanaged index fund, almost all of the growth is tax-deferred - except for a small taxable dividend. The index could be appreciating at $100,000 per million and the tax bill would be only about $3000 per million. Or maybe municipal (tax free) bonds? - they might generate $50,000 per million of tax free income.
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thyme4change
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Post by thyme4change on Apr 13, 2011 18:59:11 GMT -5
But, wouldn't you have to pay taxes when you sell?
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phil5185
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Post by phil5185 on Apr 13, 2011 19:07:51 GMT -5
But, wouldn't you have to pay taxes when you sell? "IF" you sell. If you never sell and let your heirs inherit it, they get the stepped-up tax basis - ie, no tax. But yes, you are correct - if you have a $500k profit on your million dollar sale, you will owe about $75,000 in capital gains tax. But that is a one-time thing - not like paying income tax on a high salary every year.
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Deleted
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Post by Deleted on Apr 14, 2011 9:40:43 GMT -5
"if you have a $500k profit on your million dollar sale, you will owe about $75,000 in capital gains tax"
Only if your cost basis is 0. Let's not forget the most wonderful tax exemption: The $250k/$500k exemption on cap gains for a personal residence owned for 2 years or longer. ;D
I couldn't find a dollar amount for the minimum amount of NW for the 1% highest NW. Does anyone have a ready reference?
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Post by Savoir Faire-Demogague in NJ on Apr 14, 2011 9:54:11 GMT -5
Only if your cost basis is 0. Let's not forget the most wonderful tax exemption: The $250k/$500k exemption on cap gains for a personal residence owned for 2 years or longer.
I imagine with all the talk coming out of DC these days, exemptions, deductions and exclusions such as this will be phased out, or completely eliminated.
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Deleted
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Post by Deleted on Apr 14, 2011 10:09:51 GMT -5
"I imagine with all the talk coming out of DC these days, exemptions, deductions and exclusions such as this will be phased out, or completely eliminated."
They've already messed with it. Starting in 2009 you have to pro-rate your gain if you've rented out your house. That used to be a sweet deal. Do a 1031 exchange from an appreciated income property into a house suitable personal residence, rent it for 1 year, live in it for 2 years and then reap a $250k/$500 cap gain tax free.
The year before they changed the rule so you had to own a 1031 exchanged property which was converted into personal residence for 5 years.
Given what's happened over the last 3-4 years I don't know how lucrative closing this loop hole would be. I'm seeing a lot of property down to their 2003 levels. We'll be looking at no real estate cap gains for most folks for nearly a decade.
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